Saturday, May 20, 2006

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Proposal of 'politics weekly' Frege's criterion

"How about having one, maybe old but still interesting for me now question whether a conviction if it is subject to any influence of a feeling, once regarded as a moral attitude is?
If therefore the conviction that only a preliminary stage in moral learning process?"

above can discuss we are happy, only you have to explain exactly what you mean! An example might be quite helpful. I am a bit confused - normally one knows just the opposite, namely Kant's assertion that, once emotions come into play, and morality has an end immediately. And what about my conviction: in the refrigerator, there is a beer when they under the influence I feel I have a beer saubock come? If this is to fall under your principle, then the first conviction would be morally, but what it is not likely.

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known, it is possible that Otto (while he viewed the morning sky, Venus) but think: This is the morning star , but not: That's the Abene. Although both terms have the same reference, namely Venus, but since Otto does not know that Evening Star = Morning Star, you can not just replace one term by the other. Religious contexts are intensional contexts.
One can also establish the rule ("Frege's criterion): If possible

is that a person who disposes over the terms F and G believes that something is F, but that it is not G, F and G are two different concepts.

Under this rule Abener and Morgenstern different terms, because Otto believes that this is because the morning star, but not the evening star (though he disposes over two terms).

In an article by Jeff Speaks about non-conceptual content (here: www.arts.mcgill.ca / philo / speaks / papers / nonconceptual penultimate.pdf) is asserted in an aside that it is possible that F and G Frege likely to satisfy, but still two different concepts. That's according Speaks always the case when There are two synonyms in a language.
Speaks example, the English expressions "ketchup" and (both hot ketchup) "catsup" Someone can understand what the meaning of both expressions, without knowing that they are synonymous. Then he can believe that this is because catsup, but not ketchup. Nevertheless are ketchup and catsup synonymous, that is, it's the same concept that is only just brought by different words to express.

Conclusion: Frege's criterion does not apply for anything you can think or believe - sometimes someone has the concept F and G believes that something is F and G, but still are F and G no different concepts.

runs the argument (I think) to the question also, as related notions and expressions, or thinking, and language - Speaks' position is based on the assumption that language can sometimes differ Fine, as thinking - namely when two expressions take the same concept expressed . (. Could be similar even for different languages to say - for example, that the words 'mother' and 'mother' the same term to express) the one hand I think it's quite reasonable, on the other hand, I tend to say however, that there are two different concepts ketchup and catsup there, just can not believe someone that does not equal ketchup catsup is.

Wednesday, May 17, 2006

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suggestions?

unfortunately I'm just very uncreative when it comes to exciting new topics for discussion. I am working on it though!
If someone of you can think what, what should be discussed urgently, tell me just know!
Eva

Friday, May 12, 2006

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changes in the working world of the philosophers?

I found an interesting post that deals with how and whether the behavior of professional philosophers in the United States over the last decades has changed, in particular their commitment and dedication to the universities and in the cities , in which they teach.
I have little idea of what it actually is and was in Germany. Do we have similar developments?

Here is the post

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perception and thought

What really distinguishes thoughts / beliefs and perceptions of other sensations? The Nonkonzeptualist says that both have a different type of content (which is conceptually of thought that is not of sensations-term). The conceptualist expressed (as far as I know) not to do so. What could really McDowell say about why they are different?
And what one would intuitively give in response to distinguish why both? Somehow hangs together even with the phenomenal dimension of sensations. On the other hand, there are also enough philosophers who claim that thoughts have a phenomenal dimension.

Saturday, May 6, 2006

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vs. agnosticism. Atheism and skepticism

My friend and I discuss the subject more often times what is actually the more rational position: atheism or agnosticism.

The argument for atheism:
There are all sorts of arguments that there is no God, as the theodicy. In addition, we are atheists in respect of all to touch all possible gods (Odin, Vishnu, Aphrodite, ...) - and do not have better reasons not to believe in these gods, as we have not to believe in the Christian God. Things you once could only explain with the help of God, can explain today without, for example, by evolution. One could argue for the existence of a God that would explain a Schoepfergott, why the universe came into being at all. (It would have as it were a cause for the Big Bang.) But actually it moves with this 'statement' the question of cause only a step backwards (What is the reason that there is a God?) And do pretty significant additional metaphysical assumptions to make. So it is most rational to assume that there is no god at all.

argument for agnosticism:
There is actually no viable is sufficient proof that God exists. If one looks at the world, can at least by omnipotent, omniscient, and perfectly well recognize much. The theory of evolution rid us of the assumption that there must be a God to tell us. But after all, the adoption of a Schoepfergottes the advantage that we have an explanation as to why at all it all started. Although the moves the question of why only a step backwards, but still! Despite additional metaphysical ballast (in the form of a god) theism is here is not (much) worse off than atheism. So it is most rational, to the question of whether there is a God, not at all defined. Maybe it's a bit more likely that there is none, but you can somehow not really comment.

What do you say?

Thursday, May 4, 2006

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contextualism

Let's start with the following sentence I know, "I have hands."
The skeptic says that I do not that I have hands. Reason: The possibility exists that I am a brain in a tank and have no hands. Computer to send my brain electrical impulses that I remind of a world outside, including that I have hands. Since I dismiss this possibility with my evidence can not (which are in the brain in a vat-hair situation as well as in the situation with a real external world), I can not know for sure that I have hands.

the contextualist reply: If I'm the skeptic attention to the brain in a vat scenario makes, I actually do not know that I have hands. Similarly in all other situations in which someone submits doubts about our knowledge of the outside world. If I could but nobody is skeptical scenario calls to mind, I know very well that I have hands. The reason for this is because the standards change with the context in terms of what opportunities I can be exclude. If put forward in a context error possibilities, I can dismiss this, if not argued in another context, this error possibilities, I can not exclude it, to have knowledge.

My objection (I assume a standard objection) against contextualism: I know I have hands, even if I just discussed in the philosophy seminar about the skepticism. Even if someone just told me very emphatically, everything that I could look just like right now, and I still could be a brain in a tank, does not change the fact that I know that I have hands. Contextualist has at most is correct in that I might lose my conviction that I have hands, if someone suggests all good enough. Then of course I know not everything that I have some (but my knowledge fails because of the lack of conviction, not on the lack of justification). But as long as I firmly insist on my opinion, I find it absurd that this view is suddenly no longer be justified, although it was still 5 minutes before.

Monday, May 1, 2006

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"The Spirit of Animals" The evil

I take this semester for Seminar about the spirit of the animals. From this you can in the near term and expect more about animals whose mental qualities or abilities. (We hold the seminar on the book 'The Spirit of the Animals, which last year by Perler and game was released.)

One of the big questions is of course the can, whether animals think. For example, can believe the dog who follows a cat does not see that it has climbed to the chestnut and barks instead the adjacent beech, that the cat is on the book? Known opponent of the thesis that animals can think, is Davidson. He claims, first, that we already own animals therefore can not attribute thoughts, because we in principle the content of their thoughts can not specify. We can not, because animals have no language. Second, we can attribute to animals any ideas, because whenever you can only attribute a whole network of beliefs, etc., and this would have to then belong convictions, the animals certainly do not have. (This all was out of my head, I hope I'm not very Davidson falsified.)

I think it is obvious that animals have no idea, formulated in language. For example, thinks the dog is certainly not, "I'm sure the cat is on the book!" But it might be that thoughts must be formulated not necessarily linguistically in order to have a content and therefore to count as a thought. It seems to me that is most plausible that some kind of mental representations are, which also can have (higher) animals and from a functional perspective, play a similar role as our linguistically structured thought. The dog would have a mental representation that is caused by the fact that he has seen the cat walking towards book (he has just not seen it yet then jumped on the chestnut.) These representations led to the book that he barks. If the dog, the cat will see it suddenly on the chestnut would, then it would in 'trigger' a different representation, and he would bark as the chestnut.

Any objections?

Wednesday, April 26, 2006

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emancipation

According to my Internet information source, the SZ has Eva Herman from the television news for the magazine Cicero made a post about the harmful effects of emancipation (for women, men, children and society itself). I think somewhere between all the funny, stupid and provocative, and you would like this product why not withheld.

http://www.sueddeutsche.de/deutschland/artikel/530/74456/

In short, the emancipation of blame for the extinction of the Germans. It leads to the fact that women can fill their role as parent and no longer true that half of all children's deficits, and - oh dear - the women are thus masculinized and feminized men! In addition, the career women in thirty years emancipation (and morally) take any long, and for strong male shoulder to lean on.

And especially bad: "For several decades we have failed women increasingly against those laws that the survival of our human species who once saved." (I sense biological determinism!) So should we women go back to kitchen, children, church, because since everything is always so happy and harmonious, "Who was allowed to get to know the value of domestic peace in harmony and warmth, is a place of safety, happiness and peace of mind, white, .'s Spoken of "

And God has indeed everything is determined so that the women stay at home." There is the woman who can hold together in the performance of their creation order, the family "
Gnaedigerweise allowed Mrs. Herman, that women read minds and want to learn computers must - because ". It is obvious that women learn that they educate themselves and take on tasks outside the family if they have the talent for it, but all this should be done in moderation."

Now I only hope that Ms. Herman follows her own advice, is totally devoted to her son and her third husband, and us in the future Dummgebraddel save her!

Wednesday, April 19, 2006

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knowledge = justified true belief?

order again to start a purely philosophical Post ...

Getti The problem is so well known and invertebrate: Getti shows that in some cases where we intuitively would admit no knowledge of a person, according to the definition of knowledge (= justified true belief) still would have to present knowledge. What is to be shown that the definition is not or is not sufficient.

For example, Otto has good reason to believe that his friend Hans owns a Ford. He has absolutely no reason to believe that his girlfriend Elke in Barcelona. For fun, he expressed the conviction: "Hans owns a Ford or Elke is in Barcelona. "Unfortunately, Hans has no Ford, but only runs with a borrowed Ford through the area. For this is Elke chance in Barcelona. The conviction is therefore justified and true, but still do not know Otto, that Hans owns a Ford or Elke is in Barcelona.

All Getti problem is based on the assumption that our concepts have a definition structure. It can be defined, which is knowledge, and who has the concept knowledge, has somehow (intuitively?) through the appropriate definition. Unfortunately, this understanding of the structure of terms is completely outdated. are currently popular the prototype theory and the theory-theory.

prototype theory: A term is not in a sufficient and necessary set of conditions as a definition, instead, only a few conditions must be met before a word is given. (For example, falls within the definition banana fruit, though perhaps one of the conditions for fruit also to hear that a fruit is round.)
theories theory: words such as theories - she explained her role in the connection with other related terms. (For example, apple a particular role in connection with fruit, pear or Golden Delicious ;. Then it is the concept)

Particularly in view of the problem getti I think it's obvious that there are not concepts in definitions. Then philosophical concept analysis may, however, not the fact, definitions (with the claim of necessary and sufficient) auszubuchstabieren.

The prize question: What then takes the place of the traditional expression analysis? What can it be said as a philosopher, if one wants to clarify what we mean by knowledge?

For an article about terms: http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/concepts/

Thursday, April 13, 2006

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power but your own blog on!

me it is just enough! Although I asked you yesterday about a civil Diskussionston maintain contact and feels also arguments that there was again a comment that has not yet offered. (Okay, maybe there were approaches of arguments, but there was still more like mere allegations.) This refers to the comment by Steffen.

why: If someone leaves you in the future such comments on my blog, I'll delete it without mercy. If you want to drain your frustrations on some philosophical schools and movements, making it easy on your own blog!

This does not mean that evil comments on any posts are welcome, but I am counting on your good taste and that she herself recognizes that goes too far, and where there are arguments in support of attacks on anderleuts positions could.

Schoene Gruesse,

Eva

Wednesday, April 12, 2006

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a model (analytical typical?) Discussion style

I was upset in my last post actually only a little over Peacocke, writing completely incomprehensible and boring. (As I said, with the exception of Chapter 3) but instead a small mud fight between advocates of analytic and continental philosophy came of it. No idea what the professional bloggers at this point to censor you. I found it anyway bloed. Above all, still does not answer my serious question, what are the other standards used for continental philosophy in contrast to the analytical Philosophy should be applied. Second, I'm interested, of course, what are the themes of continental philosophy, so that the natural sciences have nothing to say, and so they are not in danger of being made redundant. If you are so likely to be threatened over the analytic philosophy, I hope you can answer me these questions!

I would also note that this was offered as an analytical discussion style. For analytical discussions should make arguments for his thesis, what happened here on any page. For example, JST has indeed claimed that dummschwaetzen all continental philosophers, but other than his own, at least for us not documented in the blog experience and intelligence (which were also promptly attacked) brought no arguments for this thesis. MNER has set up in exchange for the unsupported allegation that the analytic philosophy is at the level of several hundred years ago, and, moreover, an auxiliary science. (I agree that analytic philosophy is in many areas by the Natural Sciences 'threatened', but I was wondering still why the continental philosophy is not in this position. I also am not sure if this really a sign of lack of quality of analytical philosophy.)

I just wanted to ask why all of my blog with each other in the sense that their future is in your thesis with arguments. I admit that I do not always waterproof argue, but some of the last comments but you had the impression that you did not even try it! Also, I would be you all very grateful if you indiscriminate insults exchanged not on my blog, because I actually comes to have interesting discussions, regardless of whether feels someone closer to the camp of the analyst or the camp of the Continental belong.
Thanks in advance, Eva

Tuesday, April 11, 2006

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content than functional role

I'm still my thoughts about what might be content of perceptions. I now have a theory: The content of a perception is nothing other than the functional (s) (or supervenes on the?) Role of perception. In a functional role, I mean here not only so that the perception just caused what other mental states it causes, and for what behavior it leads. I would also group including, with which this perception is causally covaries in the evolutionary history of a being, and what is the evolutionary purpose of such a perception, therefore.

So when I see a red tomato, then the content of my perception that something is red, small and round in front of me is. This content is however just in (or supervenes on) the causal role of my perception in evolutionary preconditions.

What say you?

Sunday, April 9, 2006

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competition: Who writes the worst?

McDowell When I have read, I thought that he writes pretty bad. I read Peacocke (A study of concept) only to discover that even classes Peacocke writes worse than McDowell.

why I've been thinking who the worst (ie, at least understood) are writing authors, I have read so far in philosophy Sun Here are my top 5: 1st

Peacocke (writes extremely cumbersome and complicated, moreover, boring)
second McDowell (flowery and vague - arguments to find)
third Davidson (very vague, even to complicated)
4th Kant (the longest sentences I have ever read, except perhaps in 'Michael Kohlhaas' von Kleist)
5th Tarski (way too long and mathematically!)

Anyone else suggestions?

Eva

Sunday, April 2, 2006

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abortion, the Second

And then I had another discussion about abortion. Imagine the following situation: A man and a woman have sex. She becomes pregnant (because the condom tears). He said from the beginning that he does not want to be a father. She wants an abortion nor to release the child for adoption, and keeps it thus.
question: Is man then a moral obligation to provide for the child (at least financially), although he has made it clear at first, of its intention to have a child, and secondly, although it is not his decision was to abort the child can not?

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abortion the first

Last week I had a few friends, including a physician, discussed about the pros and cons of abortion. The legal position (ie, the legality of abortion) in Germany is somewhat confusing, since the whole with impunity until the third month, but is not actually legal. Considering the question of the moral status of abortion is still exciting.
In our discussion, we have two separate questions: first
The physician: From When does life at all?
second Me: What's the morally relevant criterion under which an embryo or fetus (not more) may be aborted?
What do you think that?

Thursday, March 30, 2006

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2nd Nature and Education (McDowell)

I just read McDowell "Mind and World", and to have a critical (perhaps even a comprehension) questions. And then another question immediately ahead ...
A basic problem with the auseindandersetzt to McD's, how can the "logical space of reasons" and the "logical space of nature" and share each other. Ultimately, it's about whether our normative way of speaking (namely rationality, knowledge and content - beliefs can be true or false, so there are standards that meet a conviction must be true) to our descriptive speech, with which we nature in the natural sciences describe can be attributed. (Sorry for the monster of sentence read, too much McD.)
So my first ask yourself: Is it really McDowell only different ways to describe the world to capture /, or has deeper metaphysical claims?

McDowell tried both logical spaces to be reconciled by claiming that both are of the nature of space and the space of reasons part of nature. What he "realm of law", namely the call, which falls under the laws of nature and is described by science does not alone from nature. (Anti-Physikalismus!) This is still what McD called "2nd Nature" and "education" - namely, a part of our human Nature, which is only developed through education. Here is a passage: "Our education actualize some of the potentialities we are born with; not we do have to suppose it introduces a non-animal ingredient into our constitution ... the space of reasons [+ conceptual skills] ... can be within the framework Which meaning comes into view only because our eyes can be opened to it by education, Which is an element in the normal coming to maturity of the kind of animal we are. " (P.88, 1996 edition)
My question: Is this second nature of man will ultimately not something that can also by nature a la science be explained? I would argue that our cultural practice, to the development of conceptual Skills leads, evolutionarily explainable and therefore also attributable to the natural sciences. If that's true, but McDowell is part of the store "soon Naturalists" against which he applies himself. Does anyone
statements or objections to my question?
Eva

Monday, March 27, 2006

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now finally anonymous comments

Hello,
after a few complaints about the complicated registration process, I have decided, at least tentatively, to allow comments by anyone. Those who want to vent to a published here can post a comment that is now so easy to do so.
For their own posts, however you must still register with me. Despite these circumstances I am of course very much in favor , each of a question, problem, or a steep proposition this one be published.
So then a lot of fun,
Eva

Sunday, March 26, 2006

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qualia and thoughts

Last Post followed by a further question: Do we
as the 'thoughts' just as' occurent beliefs' or more broadly as' currently instantiated attitudes to propositional contents '. So I think even "Now it's March."
My impression is that most philosophers (and especially the representationalist) assume that I can have this idea, without it being somehow to have him. The idea is not necessarily associated with qualia. If I'm not mistaken, but takes David Chalmers at least the opposite: namely, that it is always somehow a 'occurent was' to have.

I would intuitively agree with Chalmers feels When I think about something, no matter what it is, then the in some way. The feel of even relatively similar to what is present with me when I have something perceive. How are we going: I think just the month of March, but it's somehow not think to let him?
Actually, I would rather the distinction between thoughts and feelings maintained (namely, that the latter necessarily associated with the former Qualia, is not) - ie: does anyone know a way, as my intuition could be invalidated?

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convictions and Philo thought

A question of terminology:
appear in the English literature to the philosophy of mind as a contrast term to 'experience' alternately (and for me not clearly distinguishable) 'thought' and 'belief' on. I have two theories about where the difference between thought could / thoughts and was lying / convictions: first

Convictions are not necessarily instantiated thoughts. I can have such a conviction, that is March now, without actually I just thought in my head. For example, it could be that I think just because I'm hungry (and I 'hear say' this in my head). Nevertheless, I have a background conviction that is now March, only This is not convinced (required) instantiates concrete. The difference here is so into something like 'MRP vs. instantiated '.

second Convictions are a subspecies of thoughts. To think it in not only the conviction that now is March, but also the hope that is March now, the in-Recital-pulling, that just is March, or doubting, that just is March. Thought would therefore be roughly synonymous to propositional attitudes.

A third possibility is a combination of both: Thoughts are just instantiated propositional attitudes, of which there are several subspecies, such as convictions or instantiated instantiated doubt.

Hat anyone of you more information or intuitions, how to understand the best?

Friday, March 24, 2006

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blog

Hi everyone, yesterday I
an indignant e-mail received, the other philosophical about my first blog (German) has been on the internet aware that I will not deprive you.
So: "http://www.philobar.blogspot.com/", "http://web115.can20.de/blogpress/", "http://www.siggibecker.de/blog/. Moreover, one of our co-panelists own philosophical blog, which is to be mentioned here also: http://philoblog.de.

was second defendant in that one must register if you want to participate in discussions on this blog. I thought that was actually quite a good idea to make it a little cozy family remains. On the other hand, it is stupid if people do not therefore give helpful comments, because they find it too stressful to sign up. What do you think?
Eva

Wednesday, March 22, 2006

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Why do we need abstract objects?

As already posted below, I try klarzuwerden what is meant by "content" of mental states. Therefore, I try to understand what are propositions that are expressed as their content like. To understand what propositions, I try to understand what are abstract objects - because propositions are considered as abstract objects like.

I find it intuitively plausible to assume first that there is something else than that "tangible" things that touch you see, etc., may or parts that make up these things. It can of course be other items that we do not because of our perception of limitations to exercise, so it's perhaps better to speak here of objects that exist in space and time. (Ontological remark). I also find it implausible that we could have knowledge of such non-tangible items. How does it work because if we do not use these objects in (causal, spatial, temporal) contact interaction or the like can occur? (Epistemic comment)

It is nice and also from a systematic perspective helpful if you can talk about abstract objects. (For example, if our modal language by means of possible worlds that exist in maximally consistent sets of propositions explains.) I got the impression that many philosophers consider abstract objects as more than a useful tool. So my question is: we need to seriously argue that there are abstract objects? If so, what are the reasons? Why are abstract objects to be more than a useful fiction?

As always grateful for helpful comments
Eva

Friday, March 17, 2006

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transparency

And a philosophical contribution ...
According to Moore's argument are the Qualia transparency about the phenomenal character of perceptions transparent. That is, if I look as the blue sea, while trying to concentrate on the blue qualia my perception, I look (metaphorically speaking) by the end Qualia through and concentrate on the blue of the sea, my perception represented. When the perceptions

all very plausible (I think). But finally, I was confronted with the question of how it is with pain. Other examples would be moods, feelings, or the like.
Examples: If I hear a song the qualia of my auditory perception transparent? When I feel a sharp pain in my left shoulder blade, the sensation of qualia are transparent? If I'm scared, this feeling is transparent?

The question naturally arises, first and foremost the representationalist, yes, used the transparency of the argument as an argument for his thesis that qualia are our feelings with their representational content identical.
What do you think?

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trip to the phonetics

at the meeting so the matter was clarified how to "Alex Byrne" pronounce (namely Böörn with English "r"), and also how to "Fregean content" expresses, namely about Fregia with emphasis on the first "e".
What I am still not clear is how to "Chalmers" pronounce: Intuitively, I would say yes Chahhmers ", but I've also heard" Challlmers.
Does anyone know more?
Eva

Thursday, March 16, 2006

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Chalmers and dinosaurs

As I understand Chalmers is one of the problems that a reduction of phenomenal consciousness to physical facts stand in the way this: Even if I know all of the physical world reveals itself to me this does not yet why, for example, the pain in my foot feels so and so.
In contrast, according to Chalmers are non-phenomenal facts. If I know anything about the underlying micro-physical and functional facts, then I know for example why (or that?) Water behaves so and so.
Because of this difference can be facts about water facts about H 2 reduce O; facts about consciousness can, however, as not to reduce facts about the brain.

My objection: Even with physical facts, we are not always able to conclude, from our complete knowledge of basic facts on more facts. An example of this morning I read in the Süddeutsche. Here's the link: http://www.sueddeutsche.de/, wl1/wissen/artikel/112/72040 /
The headline reads: ".. Run, Dino, run researchers try to understand, how did the dinosaurs moved, as the exact movements were, but will probably remain a mystery."
The thesis of the article is that we will never know exactly how the exactly dinosaurs are gone (what position, which movements, what speed, etc.), even though we are the skeletons, fossils, computer simulations, and more at our disposal. Although we can rule out various hypotheses, such as dinosaurs are gone, but still we can not just pick out a movement and say, this is the right one.

I give that we have no complete knowledge about dinosaurs. But we have no complete knowledge about the brain. And even if we (in addition to the current dinosaurs themselves) would have all the information one could then claim not still believe that we do not know how accurate they are wrong? Should we then say that the facts are on motion dinosaur in non-physical facts?